Nursing Elites

1. A patient with hypertension is taking an ACE inhibitor to lower blood pressure. What should the nurse advise the patient to avoid in their diet?

• A. Vinegar
• B. Apples
• C. Salt substitutes
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients taking ACE inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes as they often contain potassium, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium in the blood that can be dangerous, especially for patients on ACE inhibitors. Vinegar, apples, and tomatoes do not pose a risk for patients taking ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to avoid salt substitutes to prevent potential complications.

2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

• A. Be sure to limit your potassium intake while taking the medication.
• B. You should check your blood pressure every 8 hours while taking this medication.
• C. Your medication dosage will be increased if you develop tachycardia.
• D. Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is usually not necessary with antihypertensive medications. Checking blood pressure every 8 hours is not a standard recommendation unless specified by a healthcare provider. Increasing medication dosage due to tachycardia is not a typical practice for antihypertensive medications.

3. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.

4. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

5. Following a stroke, a client has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). Why is this medication being administered?

• A. To prevent stroke in high-risk patients, such as those with prosthetic heart valves
• B. To decrease blood pressure
• C. To increase heart rate
• D. To provide antiplatelet activity in patients who cannot tolerate aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots. It is commonly used in patients who have had a stroke and cannot tolerate aspirin due to allergies or intolerances. Choosing clopidogrel in these cases helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of recurrent strokes.

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