ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about the recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress, which may be instituted after a disaster?
- A. Critical incident stress management
- B. Follow-up
- C. Debriefing
- D. Defusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Critical incident stress management is a process that provides individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions and strategizing management techniques for handling stress after a disaster. Choice B, 'Follow-up', is incorrect because it generally refers to continuing care after initial treatment, not specifically to stress management education. Choice C, 'Debriefing', is a process where individuals involved in a critical event are brought together to discuss the event and their reactions to it. It can be part of the critical incident stress management process, but it doesn't cover the whole process. Choice D, 'Defusion', is a technique used in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic event to help individuals process their experiences, but it does not encompass the full range of education about stress recognition and management strategies.
2. What are the responsibilities of a nurse towards a patient?
- A. A registered nurse is responsible for a group of patients from their admission to their discharge
- B. A registered nurse only provides care for the patient with the assistance of nursing aides
- C. A nurse's only responsibility is to perform administrative duties in a healthcare setting
- D. A nurse's only responsibility is to maintain hospital equipment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A registered nurse is responsible for a group of patients from their admission to their discharge. This responsibility encompasses assessing patient needs, formulating care plans, administering medications, monitoring patient progress, and coordinating with other members of the healthcare team. Choice B is not entirely accurate because, even though nurses often work with nursing aides, the nurses themselves hold the ultimate responsibility for the overall care of the patient. Choices C and D are incorrect as they depict an incomplete and inaccurate representation of a nurse's role, which extends beyond administrative duties and equipment maintenance to primarily focus on direct patient care.
3. During which phase of the therapeutic relationship should the nurse inform the patient about the termination of therapy?
- A. Pre-orientation
- B. Orientation
- C. Working
- D. Termination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Termination'. This phase of the therapeutic relationship is when the nurse informs the patient about the conclusion of therapy. It is during this phase that the nurse and the patient review the goals and progress made and also discuss the upcoming termination. The other phases are not the appropriate times for discussing termination. 'Pre-orientation' is the phase before the nurse-patient relationship is established; 'Orientation' is when the nurse and patient get to know each other and set goals; and 'Working' is when these goals are pursued. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
4. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
5. What characterizes Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?
- A. Uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly
- B. Persistent thoughts and behavior
- C. Recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts
- D. Pathological persistence of unwilled thoughts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is characterized by the uncontrollable impulse to perform an act or ritual repeatedly (Choice A). This is driven by recurring unwanted and disturbing thoughts (Choice C), but the distinguishing factor is the compulsive behavior, making choice A the most accurate. While choice B can be seen as true, it lacks the specific detail of the compulsive behavior that makes A a better answer. Choice D is not incorrect, but it uses terminology that is less precise and less commonly used to describe OCD, making it a less accurate choice than A. The provided rationale is not relevant to the question.
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