ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
2. The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:
- A. It takes at least three chemical substances (amino acids, neuropeptides, and monoamines) to stimulate any activity between the cells.
- B. There is a symbiotic relationship; therefore, the end result will be depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
- C. The combination of GABA with a receptor site is inhibitory since it causes the local nerve membrane to become hyperpolarized and less excitable.
- D. The neurotransmitters will interact with cholinergic receptors to bind to acetylcholine in order to produce hypopolarization within the cell.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.
3. A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
- A. Iron deficiency anemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Pernicious anemia
- D. Hemolytic anemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is associated with a congenital intrinsic factor deficiency, leading to the impaired absorption of vitamin B12. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice A) is not directly related to intrinsic factor deficiency. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by defective iron uptake by developing erythrocytes and is not linked to intrinsic factor deficiency. Hemolytic anemia (Choice D) involves the premature destruction of red blood cells and is not specifically associated with intrinsic factor deficiency.
4. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Natural killer cells
- D. Langerhans cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.
5. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?
- A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
- B. ALT and AST
- C. Urine culture and sensitivity
- D. Erythrocyte count and differential
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.
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