wgu pathophysiology final exam WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A patient with systemic candidiasis has been prescribed flucytosine. The nurse should be aware of the need to administer this drug with which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amphotericin B. When treating systemic candidiasis, Amphotericin B is the drug of choice, not flucytosine. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used to treat severe fungal infections like systemic candidiasis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and calcium supplements, fluconazole, and penicillin G are not the drugs of choice for treating systemic candidiasis.

2. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.

3. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

4. A patient is being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What are the risks associated with long-term HRT that the nurse should discuss with the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are informed about the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like cardiovascular events. Choice C is incorrect as HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, not a decreased risk. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may have positive effects like improving symptoms of menopause, it is not primarily indicated for improving mood and energy levels.

5. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.

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