ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
2. When starting on oral contraceptives, what key point should the nurse emphasize about taking the medication consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives should be taken at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and prevent pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day, as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid nighttime side effects.
- D. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately upon starting, regardless of timing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels and ensure their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential to maximize contraceptive efficacy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence that taking oral contraceptives in the morning helps avoid nighttime side effects. Choice D is incorrect because oral contraceptives do not provide immediate effectiveness and require consistent use to prevent pregnancy.
3. A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?
- A. Transmission
- B. Primary infection
- C. Latent tuberculosis
- D. Active tuberculosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.
4. A nurse is educating a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid walking for long periods to prevent leg pain.
- B. I should inspect my feet daily for any sores or wounds.
- C. I should wear compression stockings to improve circulation.
- D. I should avoid smoking to prevent further damage to my arteries.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Walking is crucial in improving circulation in peripheral artery disease; therefore, the client should not avoid walking for long periods. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements for a client with PAD. Inspecting feet daily helps in early detection of sores or wounds, wearing compression stockings improves circulation, and avoiding smoking helps prevent further damage to arteries in PAD.
5. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Nephrotoxicity
- C. Cardiotoxicity
- D. Pulmonary toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.
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