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1. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
- A. Administering flu vaccinations
- B. Screening for hypertension
- C. Performing a mastectomy
- D. Providing rehabilitation after surgery
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Screening for hypertension is indeed an example of a secondary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (Choice A) is an example of primary prevention, aimed at preventing the disease from occurring. Performing a mastectomy (Choice C) is a treatment for an existing condition and not a preventive strategy. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (Choice D) is a form of tertiary prevention that focuses on restoring function and improving quality of life after an illness or injury.
2. When a client who is in pain refuses to be repositioned, what should the nurse consider first in making a decision about what to do?
- A. Why a decision is needed.
- B. Who actually gets to make the decision?
- C. What are the alternatives?
- D. When a decision is needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first consider why a decision is needed. Understanding the underlying reason for the decision helps in selecting the best action to meet the desired goal. Who actually makes the decision is important but not the primary consideration. Exploring alternatives comes after determining the reason for the decision, who makes it, and when it is needed.
3. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)
- A. Your confidence in your clinical skills.
- B. How many hours of overtime you will work.
- C. Your ability to work as a team member.
- D. Your clinical competence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.
4. A client experiences an air emboli, resulting in a stroke, during an IV start. This can be classified as which type of risk?
- A. Patient dissatisfaction
- B. Medical-legal incident
- C. Medication error
- D. Diagnostic procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Diagnostic procedure.' When a client experiences an air emboli leading to a stroke during an IV start, it falls under the category of a diagnostic procedure risk. This incident occurred during a procedure intended for diagnosis or evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Patient dissatisfaction refers to a client's discontent with care, service, or outcomes; a medical-legal incident involves legal issues related to healthcare practices; and a medication error pertains to mistakes in medication administration.
5. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Blood pressure 144/82 mm Hg
- B. Urine specific gravity 1.03
- C. Neck vein distention
- D. Urine specific gravity 1.01
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client experiencing vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse should expect findings such as dehydration, which can lead to hypovolemia and subsequent increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. A blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg is indicative of possible dehydration in this client. Urine specific gravity is typically increased in dehydrated individuals, so choices B and D are incorrect. Neck vein distention is not a typical finding associated with vomiting and diarrhea; therefore, choice C is also incorrect.
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