final exam pathophysiology Final Exam Pathophysiology - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Final Exam Pathophysiology

1. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.

2. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.

3. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.

4. What key contraindication should the nurse emphasize to a patient prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sildenafil is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific contraindication for taking sildenafil with food, having a history of hypertension, or taking it with grapefruit juice. The main concern is the concurrent use of nitrates with sildenafil.

5. Which immunoglobulin presents the first challenge to the antigen?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to challenge the antigen during an immune response. IgM is the primary antibody produced during the initial or primary immune response. It is efficient in agglutination and complement activation, making it crucial in the early stages of defense. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation and is involved in secondary immune responses. IgE is primarily associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections. Therefore, IgM is the correct choice as it acts first during the immune response, while the other immunoglobulins have different roles and functions.

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