ati pathophysiology exam 3 ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3 - Nursing Elites
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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3

1. An imbalance of which of the following hormones could lead to increased calcium levels in the blood?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Parathyroid hormone (Choice A). Parathyroid hormone plays a key role in regulating calcium levels in the blood. When there is an imbalance in parathyroid hormone secretion, it can lead to increased calcium levels in the blood. Antidiuretic hormone (Choice B) is involved in regulating water balance, not calcium levels. Calcitonin (Choice C) helps lower blood calcium levels and is unlikely to cause an increase. Melatonin (Choice D) regulates sleep-wake cycles and does not have a direct effect on calcium levels in the blood.

2. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.

3. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Persistent chest pain that may radiate to the arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction. This pain is typically described as crushing, pressure-like, or squeezing. Choice B is incorrect because brief sternal chest pain on inspiration is not characteristic of myocardial infarction. Choice C is incorrect because rapid respirations with left-sided weakness and numbness are not typical symptoms of myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder is not a common presentation of myocardial infarction.

4. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis. Allergies are caused by an excessive immune response to harmless substances, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's tissues, leading to inflammation and joint damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nails, Type II diabetes is a metabolic disorder not primarily related to immune response, smallpox is a viral infection, chronic renal failure is a kidney condition, and macular degeneration is an eye disorder, none of which are directly linked to excessive immune response.

5. What occurs in a client with polycythemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased red blood cells being produced. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an elevated number of red blood cells in the blood. This increased concentration of red blood cells can lead to blood thickening and potentially result in complications such as blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because polycythemia does not involve deficient plasma, increased lymphatic fluid production, or a deficient number of red blood cells.

Similar Questions

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Which of the following is a cause of hypothyroidism?
After sustaining a concussion, a client experiences headache, vomiting, blurred vision, and loss of consciousness. What does this indicate?
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