ati capstone pharmacology assessment 1 ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed acetaminophen for pain. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, so serum creatinine levels should be monitored for potential hepatotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine can help detect liver damage, a potential adverse effect of acetaminophen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because serum glucose is not directly affected by acetaminophen, serum potassium is not typically monitored for acetaminophen adverse effects, and serum bilirubin is more related to bile metabolism rather than acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity.

3. A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing client education regarding lithium therapy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid excessive intake of caffeinated beverages as they can interfere with lithium levels. Option A is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Option C is not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D is not a typical instruction for lithium therapy.

5. Disulfiram is taken by a client daily for abstinence maintenance. What is an adverse effect of this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Disulfiram is known to cause hepatotoxicity as a severe adverse effect. This occurs due to the inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed. Wernicke's aphasia (Choice B) is a language disorder unrelated to disulfiram therapy. Suicidal ideations (Choice C) may be associated with certain medications, but it is not a common adverse effect of disulfiram. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of disulfiram.

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