ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. What should be included in the care plan to reduce infection risk?
- A. Monitor temperature daily
- B. Limit visitors
- C. Administer antibiotics prophylactically
- D. Use reverse isolation precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, the priority is to reduce the risk of infection. Using reverse isolation precautions is crucial in this situation to protect the patient from exposure to pathogens. Monitoring temperature daily (Choice A) is important but is not as effective as isolating the patient. Limiting visitors (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure, but reverse isolation is a more stringent measure. Administering antibiotics prophylactically (Choice C) is not recommended unless there is a specific indication, as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following findings indicates a contraindication to clozapine?
- A. Fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
- B. Asthma
- C. Hypertension
- D. WBC count of 3,300/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low WBC count (3,300/mm3) is a contraindication to clozapine because this medication can cause severe neutropenia. Neutropenia is a significant reduction in white blood cell count, increasing the risk of infections. Elevated fasting blood glucose, asthma, and hypertension are not direct contraindications to clozapine.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about foods that are included on a clear liquid diet. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Broth
- C. Popsicle
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Yogurt. Yogurt is not part of a clear liquid diet. A clear liquid diet includes transparent or translucent liquids such as gelatin, broth, and popsicles. Yogurt is a thicker consistency and contains solid particles, making it inappropriate for a clear liquid diet. Choices A, B, and C are suitable options for a client following a clear liquid diet.
4. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
- B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
- C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
- D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.
5. A nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which of the following actions should be taken first?
- A. Ensure informed consent is signed
- B. Start IV fluids
- C. Administer preoperative antibiotics
- D. Reinforce surgical site dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure informed consent is signed first when preparing a client for surgery. This step is crucial as it ensures that the client has been informed about the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives before giving consent. Starting IV fluids (choice B) may be necessary but comes after obtaining informed consent. Administering preoperative antibiotics (choice C) is important but typically follows confirming informed consent. Reinforcing surgical site dressing (choice D) is a postoperative step and does not take precedence over obtaining informed consent.
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