rn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment form b RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering oxygen by face mask is the priority intervention when late decelerations are observed in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and administering oxygen helps to improve fetal oxygenation. Repositioning the client may also be necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, but providing oxygen takes precedence to enhance fetal oxygenation. Decreasing IV fluids may not directly address the underlying issue leading to late decelerations. Documenting the findings is important but should not be the first action taken when managing late decelerations.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding indicates the condition is worsening?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased shortness of breath. In COPD, worsening symptoms often include increased shortness of breath due to impaired lung function. This indicates a decline in respiratory status and the need for prompt intervention. Choice B, decreased wheezing, is not indicative of worsening COPD as it could suggest better airflow. Choice C, productive cough with green sputum, may indicate an infection but not necessarily worsening COPD. Choice D, a slight increase in fatigue, is non-specific and may not directly correlate with the worsening of COPD.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg IV bolus every 6 hours. Available is ampicillin 500 mg in 50 mL dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 20 minutes. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To infuse 50 mL over 20 minutes, the pump should be set to 150 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the correct rate for the infusion of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the given information.

4. A client with tuberculosis is about to start combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? (SATA)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pyrazinamide. In the treatment of tuberculosis, a combination drug therapy is usually employed. Pyrazinamide and rifampin are two key drugs used in this regimen. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used for herpes infections, not for tuberculosis. Isoniazid is another medication used in tuberculosis treatment, but in this case, the question asked for medications to administer, and the correct choices should be those commonly used in tuberculosis combination therapy.

5. A patient receiving chemotherapy has developed neutropenia. What should be included in the care plan to reduce infection risk?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient receiving chemotherapy develops neutropenia, the priority is to reduce the risk of infection. Using reverse isolation precautions is crucial in this situation to protect the patient from exposure to pathogens. Monitoring temperature daily (Choice A) is important but is not as effective as isolating the patient. Limiting visitors (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure, but reverse isolation is a more stringent measure. Administering antibiotics prophylactically (Choice C) is not recommended unless there is a specific indication, as it can contribute to antibiotic resistance.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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