Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is preparing to complete staff performance appraisals. Which of the following principles should the nurse manager consider when completing the appraisals?

• A. Performance appraisals should be written in measurable terms
• B. Appraisal objectives should be applicable to staff at every level
• C. Performance appraisals should be based on the nurse manager's preferences
• D. Completed appraisals should be approved by a provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Performance appraisals should indeed be written in measurable terms to ensure objective evaluations based on specific outcomes achieved. This allows for a clear assessment of staff performance. Choice B is incorrect because appraisal objectives should be tailored to each staff member's role and responsibilities, not necessarily applicable at every level. Choice C is incorrect as performance appraisals should be objective and based on predefined criteria, not solely on the nurse manager's preferences. Choice D is incorrect as completed appraisals usually require approval from higher-level management or HR, not necessarily a provider.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

• A. PT of 12 seconds
• B. aPTT of 70 seconds
• C. Platelets of 150,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

3. A nurse manager is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce the number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infections at the facility. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?

• A. Develop an MRSA protocol for implementation.
• B. Provide educational in-services for staff.
• C. Evaluate outcomes resulting from interventions.
• D. Conduct a chart review to evaluate precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conducting a chart review to evaluate the precipitating factors of clients who develop MRSA is the initial step in reducing these infections. By identifying factors contributing to MRSA infections, the nurse manager can develop targeted interventions. Developing an MRSA protocol (choice A) and providing educational in-services (choice B) would be premature without understanding the specific factors at play. Evaluating outcomes (choice C) should come after implementing interventions based on the findings from the chart review.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Rash on the face
• C. Yellow-tinged vision
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Yellow-tinged vision.' Yellow-tinged vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating an overdose of the medication. This visual disturbance is a critical adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent serious complications.\n\nChoice A, 'Increased appetite,' is not typically associated with digoxin use and is not a common adverse effect.\n\nChoice B, 'Rash on the face,' is also not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Skin rash is not a typical manifestation of digoxin toxicity.\n\nChoice D, 'Weight gain,' is not a common adverse effect of digoxin. Weight gain is not a typical symptom of digoxin toxicity and is unlikely to be related to the medication.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult who is at risk for falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use
• B. Administer a sedative at bedtime
• C. Provide information about home safety checks
• D. Teach balance and strengthening exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an older adult at risk for falls is to lock beds and wheelchairs when not in use. This measure is crucial for preventing falls and ensuring patient safety in healthcare settings. Administering sedatives at bedtime (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying risk factors for falls and may increase the risk of injury. Providing information about home safety checks (Choice C) is important for fall prevention in the home environment but is not directly related to healthcare settings. Teaching balance and strengthening exercises (Choice D) is beneficial for fall prevention but may not be suitable for all older adults at risk for falls, especially in acute care settings.

Similar Questions