a nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client by way of a nasogastric ng tube what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Flush the NG tube before and after each medication.' Flushing the NG tube is essential to ensure that the medication passes through smoothly without any obstruction. It helps prevent clogging of the tube and ensures that the full dose of the medication reaches the patient. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because crushing all medications at once, administering only liquid forms of medications, and skipping tube flushing entirely can lead to complications such as tube blockages, incomplete medication administration, and potential harm to the client.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.

3. Which question is essential during screening for alcohol use disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The essential question during screening for alcohol use disorder is asking about blackouts or loss of consciousness, which can be indicative of excessive drinking and related to alcohol use disorder. Choices A, C, and D are not as directly related to screening for alcohol use disorder. Employment status (Choice A) is not a primary question in alcohol use disorder screening. Sleep quality (Choice C) and family history of substance use (Choice D) may be relevant but are not as crucial as inquiring about blackouts or loss of consciousness.

4. After a case manager completes a history and physical assessment for a client with COPD, which of the following actions should the case manager take next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After completing a history and physical assessment for a client with COPD, the next step for the case manager should be to call the provider with a list of client concerns. This is crucial as the provider needs to be informed about any issues or changes in the client's health status to ensure appropriate management. Identifying the client's current health needs, as mentioned in option B, is important but would typically follow after communicating the client's concerns to the provider. Compiling a list of community resources (option C) and referring the client to a COPD support group (option D) are also valuable actions but are not the immediate next steps after completing the assessment.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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