ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who has just returned from surgery?
- A. Monitor respiratory rate
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Check the surgical site
- D. Monitor heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. This assessment is essential as it ensures that the patient is breathing adequately post-surgery. Maintaining a patent airway and adequate oxygenation are the top priorities in the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring blood pressure, checking the surgical site, or monitoring heart rate are important assessments but are not the priority immediately upon the patient's return from surgery.
2. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Drink a glass of milk with each meal.
- C. Lie down after meals.
- D. Drink plenty of fluids with meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.
3. What is the best method to assess pain in a non-verbal patient?
- A. Observe for facial expressions
- B. Observe for restlessness
- C. Observe for sweating
- D. Check for non-verbal cues
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe for facial expressions when assessing pain in a non-verbal patient. Facial expressions can provide vital clues about the patient's pain level and discomfort. Choices B and C, observing for restlessness and sweating, can be less specific and may indicate other issues besides pain. Choice D, checking for non-verbal cues, is too broad and does not specify the crucial aspect of focusing on facial expressions.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough every 4 hours.
- B. Provide a diet that is high in carbohydrates and low in protein.
- C. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique.
- D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
- B. Flat T waves
- C. Elevated ST segments
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.
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