ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take a calcium supplement once daily.
- B. Walk for 30 minutes three times per week.
- C. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
- D. Increase intake of vitamin D.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking regularly is beneficial for clients with osteoporosis as it helps maintain bone density and prevent fractures. Choice A is not the most appropriate because clients with osteoporosis often require more than just calcium supplements. Choice C is incorrect as weight-bearing exercises actually help strengthen bones. Choice D is important, but walking regularly has a more direct impact on bone health in clients with osteoporosis.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. You should monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client taking clopidogrel is to monitor for signs of infection. Clopidogrel affects platelet levels and can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because a compromised immune system can make the client more susceptible to infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because clopidogrel is not directly linked to alcohol restrictions, food requirements, or specific water intake instructions.
3. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Low-protein diet
- B. High-protein diet
- C. Low-sodium diet
- D. High-sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a low-sodium diet. Patients with chronic kidney disease are often advised to follow a low-sodium diet to help manage fluid retention. Excessive sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup in the body, causing complications for individuals with kidney issues. Choices A and B are incorrect because while protein intake may need to be monitored in kidney disease, the primary focus is typically on sodium restriction. Choice D is incorrect as a high-sodium diet would exacerbate fluid retention in patients with chronic kidney disease.
4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Digoxin
- C. Aspirin
- D. Lisinopril
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
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