ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
- A. A client receives antibiotics 2 hours late.
- B. A client vomits within 20 minutes of taking morning medications.
- C. A client requests a statin to be administered at 2100.
- D. A client asks for pain medication 1 hour early.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with orange juice to increase absorption.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication with milk if it causes stomach upset.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.
3. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
- B. Grilled chicken and rice
- C. Tomato soup with saltine crackers
- D. Baked fish and steamed vegetables
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone IM to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication using a tuberculin syringe
- B. Administer the medication at a 45-degree angle
- C. Use the dorsogluteal muscle for injection
- D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: When administering intramuscular injections like ceftriaxone, it is essential to aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication to ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. Choices A and B are incorrect because ceftriaxone is typically administered using a syringe appropriate for IM injections (not a tuberculin syringe) and injected at a 90-degree angle rather than 45 degrees. Choice C is incorrect because the dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for IM injections due to potential injury to the sciatic nerve and other structures.
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