ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following findings indicate fluid overload?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Hypotension
- D. Thready pulse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. When fluid accumulates in the lungs due to overload, it can lead to respiratory distress. This finding requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A) Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload; C) Hypotension refers to low blood pressure and is not a typical finding in fluid overload; D) Thready pulse may indicate poor perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid overload.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I will limit my saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
- D. I will take my medication only when I have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
- B. 1+ pitting edema
- C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.
5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?
- A. Monitor blood glucose
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.
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