Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
• B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
• C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
• D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movement, which is appropriate for a postpartum client experiencing constipation. Magnesium hydroxide (choice B) is an antacid and not indicated for constipation. Famotidine (choice C) is an H2 receptor antagonist used for reducing stomach acid production, not for constipation. Loperamide (choice D) is an antidiarrheal agent and would worsen constipation in this case.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should inject this medication once a day, at the same time each day.
• B. You should expect your blood glucose level to increase immediately after administration.
• C. You should rotate injection sites between your abdomen and thigh.
• D. You should inject this medication with your meals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to inject insulin glargine once a day, at the same time each day. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect because insulin glargine does not cause an immediate increase in blood glucose levels. Option C is important for preventing lipodystrophy but is not specific to insulin glargine administration. Option D is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically administered at the same time each day, regardless of meals.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Cough with frothy sputum.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Jugular vein distention. In left-sided heart failure, the left ventricle fails to efficiently pump blood to the body, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation. This increased pressure can lead to symptoms like jugular vein distention, as blood backs up in the pulmonary circulation and causes congestion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, cough with frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema which can occur in left-sided heart failure but is not as specific as jugular vein distention, and dependent edema is also more indicative of right-sided heart failure due to fluid retention and increased venous pressure in the systemic circulation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric residual of 200 mL or more
• B. pH of gastric contents is 5.0
• C. Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants
• D. Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Proteinuria of 1+.
• B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
• D. Nonpitting ankle edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

Similar Questions