ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Jugular vein distention.
- D. Dependent edema.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid taking anticoagulant medication.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day.
- C. Avoid isometric exercises during recovery.
- D. Perform range-of-motion exercises daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Perform range-of-motion exercises daily. After a stroke, performing range-of-motion exercises can help prevent complications such as joint stiffness and contractures. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Anticoagulant medications are often prescribed to prevent blood clots after a stroke, fluid intake should be adequate unless indicated otherwise, and isometric exercises can be beneficial during recovery.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient on furosemide for fluid balance?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor input and output
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring a patient's daily weight is crucial when assessing fluid balance in individuals prescribed furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt. Changes in weight can reflect fluid shifts, making daily weight monitoring a reliable indicator of fluid status. While checking for edema and monitoring input and output are essential aspects of fluid balance assessment, they may not provide as immediate and quantifiable information as daily weight measurements. Monitoring blood pressure is important in patients on furosemide due to its potential to affect blood pressure levels, but it is not as directly indicative of fluid balance as daily weight monitoring.
4. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Oatmeal
- B. Red meat
- C. Bananas
- D. Whole grains
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
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