Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse is reviewing the monitor tracing and notes early decelerations. What should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression resulting from the fetal head being compressed during contractions. They are considered benign and do not indicate fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect because early decelerations are not associated with fetal hypoxia. Choice B, abruptio placentae, is incorrect as it is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. Choice C, post maturity, is incorrect as it refers to a fetus that remains in the uterus past the due date.

2. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
• B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.' Clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is usually taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of metformin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.

5. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

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