ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed home oxygen. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Check your oxygen equipment daily for proper function.
- B. Increase the oxygen flow rate if you feel short of breath.
- C. Store your oxygen tanks lying flat on the floor.
- D. It is safe to smoke as long as you are more than 10 feet from the oxygen source.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make is to advise the client to check the oxygen equipment daily for proper function. This is crucial to ensure the client's home oxygen therapy is working effectively and safely. Choice B is incorrect because adjusting the oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen tanks should be stored upright, not lying flat. Choice D is incorrect and unsafe advice, as smoking near an oxygen source can lead to a fire hazard.
2. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?
- A. Methylergonovine
- B. Misoprostol
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- B. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F).
- C. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.
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