ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
- B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
- C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
- D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV antibiotic to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?
- A. Administer an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic.
- B. Monitor the client's urine output.
- C. Check the client's allergy history.
- D. Assess the client's vital signs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The first action the healthcare professional should take is to check the client's allergy history before administering the antibiotic to prevent a potential allergic reaction. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to antibiotics to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Administering an antihistamine prior to the antibiotic (Choice A) is not recommended unless an allergic reaction occurs. Monitoring the client's urine output (Choice B) and assessing the client's vital signs (Choice D) are important but not the first step in this situation. Checking the client's allergy history takes precedence to prevent adverse reactions.
3. What is pharmacodynamics?
- A. The medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength, and directions for synthesis
- B. The drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions
- C. The maximum response that a drug can produce
- D. Movements of the drugs throughout the body
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions. It involves understanding how drugs interact with the body at the molecular level to produce their effects, including mechanisms of action, receptor binding, and downstream physiological responses. Choice A is incorrect because it describes pharmacopeia, which is a reference book containing standards for drugs. Choice C refers to efficacy, which is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Choice D describes pharmacokinetics, which focuses on the movement of drugs within the body.
4. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
- B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
- C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
- D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.
5. What instruction should the nurse give regarding the adverse effect of dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine for a client with poison ivy?
- A. Administer the medication with food.
- B. Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies.
- C. Place a humidifier at your bedside every evening.
- D. Discontinue the medication and notify your provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine is to chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard, sour candies. These actions stimulate saliva production, providing relief from dry mouth. Administering the medication with food (Choice A) may help reduce stomach upset but won't address dry mouth. Placing a humidifier at the bedside (Choice C) can help with dry air-related issues but won't specifically target dry mouth. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) without consulting the provider is not recommended and may lead to inadequate treatment of poison ivy.
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