ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed
- B. Administer half of the normal dose
- C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
- D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.
2. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
- B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
- C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
- D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.
3. What is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Atropine
- B. Protamine sulfate
- C. Calcium carbonate
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.
4. A client has been prescribed a new oral hypoglycemic agent for diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with my evening snack.
- B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels before each meal.
- C. I will take this medication as soon as I wake up.
- D. I will follow my exercise plan as usual.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking an oral hypoglycemic agent with an evening snack may lead to hypoglycemia during the night. It is important to follow the prescribed timing for medication administration to maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. The medication is usually taken before meals to help control postprandial blood glucose levels effectively. Choice B is correct as monitoring blood sugar levels before each meal is a good practice. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication upon waking up may align with certain oral hypoglycemic agents' dosing schedules. Choice D is also correct as regular exercise is an important part of managing diabetes.
5. What should you monitor when administering Clopidogrel to a patient?
- A. Signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
- B. Bleeding during therapy
- C. CBC with differential and platelet count
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering Clopidogrel, it is crucial to monitor for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, bleeding during therapy, and changes in CBC with differential and platelet count. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare but serious condition associated with Clopidogrel use, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, fever, and renal dysfunction. Monitoring for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring for bleeding helps to assess the risk of hemorrhagic events, a known side effect of Clopidogrel. Additionally, regular monitoring of CBC with differential and platelet count is necessary to evaluate the drug's impact on blood cell counts and detect any abnormalities that may require intervention. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure patient safety and appropriate management during Clopidogrel therapy.
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