Nursing Elites

1. To which pharmacologic classification does the drug propranolol belong?

• A. Beta Blockers
• B. Cholinergics
• C. Immune globulins
• D. Barbiturates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol belongs to the pharmacologic classification of Beta Blockers. Beta blockers work by blocking the action of adrenaline and other stress hormones on beta-adrenergic receptors. They are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, angina, and arrhythmias. Choice B, Cholinergics, is incorrect because cholinergics work by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system, unlike beta blockers that block adrenergic receptors. Choice C, Immune globulins, is incorrect as it refers to antibodies used to boost the immune system, not the mechanism of action of propranolol. Choice D, Barbiturates, is incorrect as barbiturates are a different class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants, primarily used as sedatives and anesthetics.

2. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.

3. A client has been on levothyroxine therapy for several months. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. Decrease in level of thyroxine (T4)
• B. Increase in weight
• C. Increase in hours of sleep per night
• D. Decrease in level of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A therapeutic response to levothyroxine is indicated by a decrease in the level of TSH. This decrease signifies that the body requires less stimulation to produce thyroid hormone, reflecting a normalization of thyroid function due to the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as an increase in T4 levels, weight gain, and increased sleep hours are not indicative of a therapeutic response to levothyroxine therapy.

4. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.

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