ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
2. For what reason might the nurse be given an order to administer milrinone (Primacor)?
- A. For congestive heart failure
- B. For hypertension
- C. For cardiac arrhythmias
- D. For bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Milrinone is commonly prescribed for congestive heart failure to help improve cardiac function and alleviate symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as milrinone is not typically used for hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, or bradycardia. It is specifically indicated for congestive heart failure for short-term management.
3. The nurse is giving a client an IV bolus of heparin. What is the most important nursing action?
- A. Monitor the client's heart rate.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check for signs of bleeding.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering an IV bolus of heparin, the most important nursing action is to monitor the client's heart rate. Heparin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, making it crucial to assess the heart rate for any abnormalities. Checking the blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring the heart rate. While checking for signs of bleeding (Choice C) is essential, it is not the most crucial action when administering heparin. Monitoring the respiratory rate (Choice D) is also important but not as directly related to the potential side effects of heparin as monitoring the heart rate.
4. This heart condition is characterized by decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can lead to organ failure.
- A. Cardiogenic shock
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is a severe condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion, which can result in organ failure. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, specifically refers to a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle. Choices C and D, Endocarditis and Pericarditis, do not directly involve decreased cardiac output leading to organ failure, making them incorrect in the context of the symptoms described in the question.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 1.8. What is the most appropriate action?
- A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- B. Administer vitamin K.
- C. Hold the warfarin and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating the need for monitoring closely to ensure that the INR levels reach the desired therapeutic range. Increasing the dose of warfarin (Choice A) without proper monitoring may lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless the client is experiencing major bleeding or requires rapid reversal of warfarin's effects. Holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate action in this case should be to monitor the client's INR closely to guide further management.
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