ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Reposition the catheter.
- C. Notify the provider.
- D. Increase the rate of the continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride to help relieve any obstruction and ensure proper urinary drainage following a TURP. Repositioning the catheter may not address the underlying issue of obstruction. Notifying the provider should be done after attempting to resolve the drainage issue. Increasing the rate of continuous bladder irrigation is not the initial intervention for a catheter that is not draining.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Take your pulse before taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Take this medication with an antacid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take their pulse before taking digoxin. This is important to monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because digoxin is usually taken in the morning. Option C is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as high potassium foods are usually restricted in clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption.
4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
- B. Spinach
- C. Yogurt
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate 88/min
- C. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 136 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.
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