ati comprehensive exit exam 2023 with ngn ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

2. A client with COPD is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using pursed-lip breathing techniques is beneficial for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath by keeping airways open longer. Option A is incorrect as deep breathing while using an incentive spirometer is essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis. Option B is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for clients with COPD. Option C is incorrect as exercising in a humid area can exacerbate breathing difficulties for clients with COPD.

3. During a change-of-shift report, a nurse is receiving information about an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and stable. Reporting this information is crucial to monitor the client's condition postoperatively. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) is normal, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the expected range for an adult female client, so these values do not raise concerns that require immediate reporting.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

Similar Questions

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