ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
- A. Palliative
- B. Reconstructive
- C. Salvage
- D. Prophylactic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.
2. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
3. A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication?
- A. Iron-deficiency anemia
- B. Hemophilia
- C. Hematologic cancers
- D. Genitourinary cancers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematologic cancers. Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at a high risk of developing second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common complication. Regular health assessments are crucial for early detection and management. Iron-deficiency anemia (A) is not a typical long-term complication of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic bleeding disorder unrelated to Hodgkin lymphoma. Genitourinary cancers (D) are not the most common complication seen in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.
4. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?
- A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
- B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
- C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
- D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.
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