ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth.
- B. Photosensitivity.
- C. Headache.
- D. Urinary retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.
2. A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
- A. Administer the feeding over 60 minutes.
- B. Position the client in a supine position during feedings.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 60 mL of water before each feeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following a cataract extraction. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should expect to have eye pain for the first 2 days after surgery.
- B. You should bend at the waist to pick up objects from the floor.
- C. You should avoid sleeping on the side of the body that was operated on.
- D. You should wear an eye shield at night for 2 weeks.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. After cataract surgery, wearing an eye shield at night for 2 weeks is essential to protect the eye during the initial healing period. Choice A is incorrect because significant eye pain should not be expected for the first 2 days after surgery. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can increase intraocular pressure, which should be avoided postoperatively. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid sleeping on the side of the body that was operated on after cataract surgery.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Grilled chicken.
- B. Fresh fruit.
- C. White bread.
- D. Cheddar cheese.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
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