Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Raised nevus
• B. Macule
• C. Vesicle
• D. Irregularly shaped mole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

2. What is the first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure?

• A. Protect the patient from injury
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Administer anti-seizure medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure is to protect the patient from injury. This is crucial to prevent harm during the seizure. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or anti-seizure medication may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but ensuring their safety by removing harmful objects, cushioning their head, and keeping the area clear is the immediate priority. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or medication would come after ensuring the patient's safety.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. You should expect your urine to turn orange while taking this medication.
• C. This medication can cause you to gain weight.
• D. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking metformin with food helps reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect because metformin does not typically cause urine discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality rather than weight gain.

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