a nurse is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions which of the following findings is a priority to report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

2. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.

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