ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Raised nevus
- B. Macule
- C. Vesicle
- D. Irregularly shaped mole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.
2. A client with asthma asks how to use a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Use the peak flow meter at the same time each day.
- B. Take a slow, deep breath and blow out as hard as you can.
- C. Keep a log of your peak flow readings.
- D. Perform the test before using any bronchodilators.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform the peak flow test before using any bronchodilators. This is important because it provides the most accurate baseline measurement of lung function. Choice A is not necessarily crucial for the accuracy of the test. Choice B describes the technique for spirometry, not peak flow meter use. Choice C, while important for tracking trends, is not directly related to the accuracy of the initial measurement.
3. A client with a pulmonary embolism is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- B. Place the client in a prone position.
- C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants as prescribed is a crucial intervention for clients with pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may dislodge the clot and lead to worsening symptoms. Placing the client in a prone position can compromise respiratory function. Initiating seizure precautions is not directly related to the management of pulmonary embolism.
4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Cheddar cheese
- C. Almonds
- D. Fortified orange juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
- A. Abdominal cramps
- B. Irritability
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is a common early manifestation of hypoglycemia. When blood glucose levels drop, the brain perceives this as a stressor, leading to irritability. Abdominal cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hypoglycemia but can occur with other gastrointestinal issues. Increased thirst (choice C) is more indicative of hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia. Blurred vision (choice D) is a symptom more commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.
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