ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's urine output decreases.
- B. The client's blood pressure increases.
- C. The client's heart rate increases.
- D. The client's urine specific gravity decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The client's urine output decreases.' Desmopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus by reducing excessive urine output. Therefore, a decrease in urine output indicates that the medication is effectively controlling the symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin primarily affects urine output, not blood pressure, heart rate, or urine specific gravity.
2. What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering aspirin is the correct initial action when a patient experiences chest pain. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation and is a standard first-line treatment for chest pain related to possible cardiac issues. Administering nitroglycerin may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of chest pain, but aspirin is typically administered first. Repositioning the patient is not the primary intervention for chest pain, and preparing for surgery is not the immediate action required unless indicated by a healthcare provider after assessment.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide information about stress management.
- B. Maintain a cool temperature in the client's room.
- C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Vomiting.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Epigastric pain.
- D. Contractions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
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