a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation the nurse should expect which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria is the excessive production of urine and is a common finding in clients with hyperglycemia due to increased glucose levels. High blood sugar levels lead to the body trying to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, resulting in increased urination. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) is excessive sweating and is not a direct symptom of hyperglycemia. Tachycardia (choice D) is increased heart rate and is not a primary finding in hyperglycemia.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

4. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.

5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which action by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a mechanical lift to move a client.' Using a mechanical lift is an essential ergonomic principle to prevent injury and ensure safe client handling. Choice A is incorrect because standing with feet together when lifting a client can lead to instability and improper weight distribution. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's head of bed before pulling the client up does not primarily relate to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect because while using a gait belt is important for assisting clients with mobility, it is not specifically related to ergonomic principles for safe handling.

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