a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation the nurse should expect which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

2. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.

4. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

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