a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches which of the following instructions should the nurse i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration because it is the fastest and most effective way to rehydrate the body. IV fluids can quickly restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance in severe cases of dehydration. Providing oral fluids or encouraging fluid intake may not be sufficient for patients with moderate to severe dehydration, as they may have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. While electrolytes are essential for rehydration, administering them alone without fluid replacement may not address the primary issue of fluid loss in dehydration.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 40 mL/hr. A low urine output may indicate kidney complications, such as acute kidney injury, which is a critical finding postoperatively. The nurse should report this immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery and do not indicate immediate concerns that require reporting to the provider.

4. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation is being taught by a nurse about managing heartburn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals. This helps prevent heartburn by reducing gastric distention. Option B, drinking a glass of milk with each meal, may exacerbate heartburn in some individuals due to its fat content. Option C, lying down after meals, can worsen heartburn as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus. Option D, drinking plenty of fluids with meals, can also contribute to heartburn by distending the stomach. Therefore, the best advice for managing heartburn during pregnancy is to eat small, frequent meals.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.

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