Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same location each time.
• B. Rotate the patch site daily to avoid skin irritation.
• C. Apply the patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime.
• D. Keep the patch on at all times, even during a bath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Tracheal deviation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a common finding in clients with ARDS as the body attempts to compensate for impaired gas exchange. Barrel-shaped chest (Choice A) is associated with conditions like COPD, not ARDS. Bradycardia (Choice B) is unlikely in ARDS due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to improve oxygenation. Tracheal deviation (Choice D) is not typically seen in ARDS and is more suggestive of other respiratory conditions.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metoclopramide
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct medication to administer in this situation. It is used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and prevent complications like seizures and delirium tremens. Metoclopramide is primarily used to treat gastrointestinal issues, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used for conditions like schizophrenia, and Methadone is typically used in managing opioid dependence. These medications are not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

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