Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing.
• B. Suction the tracheostomy.
• C. Remove the inner cannula.
• D. Clean the stoma with sterile saline.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hgb 10 g/dL
• B. Platelets 300,000/mm³
• C. WBC count 12,000/mm³
• D. BUN 18 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Warmth and redness in the calf
• D. Pink-tinged urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following tests is an indicator of long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Fasting blood glucose
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
• C. Random blood glucose
• D. Postprandial blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). HbA1c provides a measure of long-term blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test reflects the average blood glucose levels during this period, making it a valuable tool in managing diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of long-term blood glucose control. Fasting blood glucose measures the current glucose level after a period of not eating, random blood glucose provides a snapshot of the current glucose level, and postprandial blood glucose measures the glucose level after a meal.

5. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.

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