a nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client which of the following actions should the nurse take first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.

2. What is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps address any potential hypoxia that may be contributing to the patient's confusion. While repositioning the patient, monitoring vital signs, and checking oxygen saturation are important nursing interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring adequate oxygenation levels, which is crucial in managing post-surgery confusion.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms of Crohn's disease. This eating pattern can help manage symptoms by reducing the workload on the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because foods high in fiber can aggravate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice B is incorrect because not all individuals with Crohn's disease need to avoid dairy products, and it is not a universal recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because increasing whole grains may not be suitable for everyone with Crohn's disease, as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

5. What is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output, thus reducing the fluid volume in the bloodstream and tissues. Providing oral fluids (choice B) or increasing fluid intake (choice C) would exacerbate the fluid overload rather than managing it. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure; it is more commonly used for conditions affecting the lungs or airways.

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