ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will monitor my blood sugar level once a week.
- B. I will exercise every day even if my blood sugar is low.
- C. I will eat snacks rich in carbohydrates if my blood sugar drops.
- D. I will avoid sugary foods to prevent my blood sugar from rising.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and has questions about the disease. To research, the nurse should identify which of the following electronic databases has the most comprehensive collection of nursing articles?
- A. MEDLINE
- B. CINAHL
- C. ProQuest
- D. Health Source
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, CINAHL. CINAHL is specifically dedicated to nursing and allied health literature, making it the most appropriate database for nursing articles and research. It provides a comprehensive collection of nursing-related articles, journals, and research studies, which are essential for evidence-based practice. MEDLINE, on the other hand, is a valuable resource for medical literature but is not as nursing-focused as CINAHL. ProQuest and Health Source cover a wider range of subjects beyond nursing, so they are not as comprehensive when it comes to nursing-specific articles and research. Therefore, for the nurse looking to access a database with a vast collection of nursing articles, CINAHL is the most suitable option.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serous drainage on the dressing
- B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
- C. Heart rate of 88/min
- D. Pallor of the affected extremity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.
4. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased shortness of breath.
- B. Decreased peripheral edema.
- C. Increased jugular venous distention.
- D. Increased heart rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.
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