Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood sugar level once a week.
• B. I will exercise every day even if my blood sugar is low.
• C. I will eat snacks rich in carbohydrates if my blood sugar drops.
• D. I will avoid sugary foods to prevent my blood sugar from rising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.

2. A nurse is assessing a newborn's heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Auscultate the apical pulse and count for 1 minute
• B. Place a sensor on the index finger
• C. Heat the skin prior to placing the probe
• D. Recheck after 10 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Auscultating the apical pulse and counting for one minute is the appropriate method to accurately measure a newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximum impulse (PMI), which is usually at the fourth or fifth intercostal space along the mid-clavicular line. This method allows for a precise assessment of the newborn's heart rate. Choice B, placing a sensor on the index finger, is incorrect because this method is more suitable for measuring oxygen saturation rather than heart rate. Choice C, heating the skin prior to placing the probe, is unnecessary for assessing heart rate and may lead to potential burns in newborns. Choice D, rechecking after 10 minutes, is not appropriate as immediate assessment and intervention may be required if an abnormal heart rate is detected in a newborn.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the solution slowly over 24 hours
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds before administration
• C. Change the IV tubing every 12 hours
• D. Flush the IV line with 2 mL of heparin every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.

4. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?

• A. Morphine 3 mg SC every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
• C. Morphine 3.0 mg subq every 4 hr. PRN for pain
• D. Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr. PRN for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

• A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
• B. To increase appetite
• C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
• D. To treat allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

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