ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will monitor my blood sugar level once a week.
- B. I will exercise every day even if my blood sugar is low.
- C. I will eat snacks rich in carbohydrates if my blood sugar drops.
- D. I will avoid sugary foods to prevent my blood sugar from rising.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.
2. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?
- A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
- B. To increase appetite
- C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
- D. To treat allergic reactions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased urinary output.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Blurred vision.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased urinary output is a common finding in clients with diabetes mellitus due to hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis. This results in the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urinary frequency and volume. Weight gain is not typically associated with diabetes mellitus but may occur in poorly controlled cases due to increased calorie intake. Blurred vision is more commonly associated with acute complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is not a typical finding in diabetes mellitus but can be seen in conditions like hypoglycemia.
4. What should be monitored when administering opioids to a patient?
- A. Monitor blood pressure
- B. Monitor respiratory rate
- C. Monitor heart rate
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering opioids, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory depression, which is a serious side effect of opioid use. Monitoring blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to assess a patient's overall condition, but they are not the primary focus when administering opioids.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting 80 seconds.
- B. FHR baseline 170/min.
- C. Early decelerations in the FHR.
- D. Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
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