a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has diabetes mellitus which of the following statements by the client indicates an underst
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.

2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been receiving lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering the medication is appropriate for a stable lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. A level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for lithium, indicating that the client is receiving an adequate dose to maintain therapeutic effects. Withholding the next dose, increasing the dosage, or discontinuing the medication would not be indicated at this lithium level as it is within the desired range for therapeutic benefit. Therefore, the correct action would be to continue administering the medication to ensure the client maintains the therapeutic level of lithium.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

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