Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood sugar level once a week.
• B. I will exercise every day even if my blood sugar is low.
• C. I will eat snacks rich in carbohydrates if my blood sugar drops.
• D. I will avoid sugary foods to prevent my blood sugar from rising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.

2. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
• B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
• D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Serotonin syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Pseudo-parkinsonism
• D. Acute dystonia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Heat the feeding to 105°F (40.6°C).
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• C. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• D. Verify the pH of the gastric aspirate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

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