ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
- B. I should avoid cleaning my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
- C. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.
- D. I can take antibiotics for viral infections.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.
2. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports cocaine use 1hr ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Memory loss
- C. Slurred speech
- D. Elevated temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated temperature. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can lead to an increase in body temperature. Hypotension (choice A) is less likely as cocaine tends to increase blood pressure. Memory loss (choice B) and slurred speech (choice C) are not typically immediate effects of recent cocaine use.
3. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?
- A. Monitor lung sounds
- B. Check oxygen saturation
- C. Assess for cough
- D. Assess for fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperkalemia. In chronic kidney disease, there is decreased renal excretion of potassium, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice A) is low potassium levels, which is the opposite finding in this scenario. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is decreased calcium levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease or elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) is low blood sugar levels and is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease or high potassium levels.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min.
- B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
- D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.
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