a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring the clients heart rate is 69min and the pr interval is 024 seconds what
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.

3. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

4. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.

5. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.

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