Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.

2. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a tongue depressor in the client's mouth
• B. Loosen tight clothing around the client
• C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
• D. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.

3. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

• A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
• B. To increase appetite
• C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
• D. To treat allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Muscle spasms.
• C. Cool, moist skin.
• D. Incisional pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

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