Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

• A. Heart rate 58/min.
• B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
• C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
• D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.

2. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Almonds
• D. Fortified orange juice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese. Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.

3. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take a calcium supplement once daily.
• B. Walk for 30 minutes three times per week.
• C. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking regularly is beneficial for clients with osteoporosis as it helps maintain bone density and prevent fractures. Choice A is not the most appropriate because clients with osteoporosis often require more than just calcium supplements. Choice C is incorrect as weight-bearing exercises actually help strengthen bones. Choice D is important, but walking regularly has a more direct impact on bone health in clients with osteoporosis.

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