ATI RN
ATI Nursing Specialty
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client is on airborne precautions and is being treated with multidrug therapy. A chest x-ray is scheduled for the client. Which of the following is not a precaution the nurse should take to safely transport the client to x-ray?
- A. Ask the x-ray technician to come to the client's room to perform a portable x-ray.
- B. Have the client wear a mask.
- C. Notify the x-ray department that the client is on airborne precautions.
- D. Wear a filtration mask and gloves for protection against the client's microorganisms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the x-ray technician to come to the client's room to perform a portable x-ray. This option minimizes the risk of exposing other individuals to the client's infectious microorganisms during transport. Having the client wear a mask (Choice B) and notifying the x-ray department about airborne precautions (Choice C) are crucial precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Additionally, wearing a filtration mask and gloves (Choice D) is essential for the nurse's protection when in direct contact with the client, but it is not directly related to transporting the client to the x-ray department.
2. A nurse in a community health center is assessing the results of the purified protein derivative (PPD) testing she performed to screen for tuberculosis (TB). She interprets which of the following results as positive for a 6-year-old client with no risk factors for TB?
- A. 4-mm erythema
- B. 5-mm induration
- C. 10-mm wheal
- D. 15-mm induration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 15-mm induration. In PPD testing, an induration (hardened raised area) of 15 mm or more is considered positive for TB in individuals with no risk factors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an erythema of 4 mm, induration of 5 mm, or wheal of 10 mm are not indicative of a positive TB test result in a low-risk individual. Therefore, the interpretation of a 15-mm induration would lead the nurse to consider the test positive for TB in this case.
3. A client comes to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is sharp, knife-like, and localized to an area he points to with one finger. The nurse should document this chest pain as which of the following?
- A. Angina pectoris
- B. Cardiogenic pain
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pleuritic pain.' Pleuritic pain is characterized by sharp, knife-like pain that worsens with deep breathing or coughing and is localized to a specific area. This type of pain is often associated with inflammation of the pleura. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Cardiogenic pain refers to pain originating from the heart itself. Myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack.
4. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
5. A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Tell the client to take an aspirin.
- B. Instruct the client to call 911.
- C. Have the client take another nitroglycerin tablet in 15 minutes.
- D. Advise the client to come to the office.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client reporting unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin tablet could be indicative of a serious cardiac event. Instructing the client to call 911 is the most appropriate response because immediate medical attention is necessary for chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Telling the client to take an aspirin (Choice A) may not address the urgency of the situation, and aspirin might not be appropriate depending on the client's medical history. Having the client take another nitroglycerin tablet (Choice C) without relief could lead to overdosage. Advising the client to come to the office (Choice D) is not the best course of action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate intervention.
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