a home health nurse visits a client who has copd and receives oxygen at 2 lmin via nasal cannula the client tells the nurse she has been having diffic
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Nursing Specialty

1. During a home visit, a nurse sees a client with COPD receiving oxygen at 2 L/min through a nasal cannula. The client reports difficulty breathing. What is the priority nursing action at this time?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action in this situation is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. When a client with COPD on oxygen therapy experiences difficulty breathing, the nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status to determine the severity of the situation. Increasing the oxygen flow without proper assessment can be harmful if not clinically indicated. While calling emergency services may eventually be necessary, it should not be the immediate action without assessing the client first. Instructing the client to cough and clear secretions is not appropriate as the nurse needs to evaluate the respiratory status before proceeding with interventions.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who came to the emergency department reporting chest pain. The provider suspects a myocardial infarction. While waiting for the laboratory to report the client's troponin levels, the client asks what this blood test will show. The nurse should explain that troponin is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that troponin is a heart muscle protein that appears in the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart. Troponin is a specific marker for heart muscle damage, particularly seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Choice A is incorrect as troponin is not an enzyme that indicates damage to brain and skeletal muscle tissues. Choice B is incorrect as troponin is not a protein whose levels reflect the risk for coronary artery disease; it indicates heart muscle damage. Choice D is incorrect as troponin is not a protein that helps transport oxygen throughout the body; its presence in the bloodstream is specific to heart muscle damage.

3. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD expresses difficulty in bringing up bronchial secretions. Which action should the nurse take to help the client with tenacious bronchial secretions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to drink eight glasses of water daily is the most appropriate action to help with tenacious bronchial secretions in COPD. Increased fluid intake can help in thinning the mucus, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear secretions. This addresses the client's difficulty in bringing up bronchial secretions. Maintaining a semi-Fowler's position can aid in breathing but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Administering oxygen may be necessary for COPD, but it does not specifically target the tenacious secretions. Selecting a low-salt diet can be helpful in managing COPD in general, but it does not directly address the client's current concern of clearing bronchial secretions.

5. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.

Similar Questions

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When caring for a client with COPD, which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
A client with angina pectoris is being taught about starting therapy with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication
A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A client is receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. The nurse should explain that this method of oxygen delivery does which of the following?

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