Nursing Elites

1. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

2. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce the nitroglycerin dose
• B. Ask the provider to prescribe a strong analgesic
• C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest
• D. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.

3. A nurse is preparing for the hospital admission of a client who is suspected to have active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement to safely care for this client?

• A. Staff and visitors should wear gowns, masks, and gloves while in the client's room.
• B. The client should be placed in a private room with a special ventilation system.
• C. The client may be placed in a room with other clients who require droplet isolation precautions.
• D. The protocol for donning and removing personal protective equipment before entering or leaving the room of a client with TB is different than for clients who are in other types of isolation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client suspected of having active tuberculosis (TB), it is essential to place the client in a private room with a special ventilation system to prevent the spread of TB bacteria to others. Choice A is incorrect because staff and visitors should wear respiratory protection, not just gowns, masks, and gloves. Choice C is incorrect as clients with TB should not be placed in a room with other clients, as they need to be isolated to prevent transmission. Choice D is incorrect because the protocol for donning and removing personal protective equipment for clients with TB is similar to other types of isolation, focusing on proper infection control measures.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?

• A. Pigeon
• B. Funnel
• C. Kyphotic
• D. Barrel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with COPD, the nurse should expect the client's chest to be barrel-shaped. This shape is a classic characteristic of COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. A 'Pigeon' chest shape is associated with pectus carinatum, a deformity of the chest wall. A 'Funnel' chest shape is seen in conditions like pectus excavatum. 'Kyphotic' refers to an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Barrel' as it is the expected chest shape in clients with COPD.

5. A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Tell the client to take an aspirin.
• B. Instruct the client to call 911.
• C. Have the client take another nitroglycerin tablet in 15 minutes.
• D. Advise the client to come to the office.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client reporting unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin tablet could be indicative of a serious cardiac event. Instructing the client to call 911 is the most appropriate response because immediate medical attention is necessary for chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Telling the client to take an aspirin (Choice A) may not address the urgency of the situation, and aspirin might not be appropriate depending on the client's medical history. Having the client take another nitroglycerin tablet (Choice C) without relief could lead to overdosage. Advising the client to come to the office (Choice D) is not the best course of action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate intervention.

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