ati detailed answer key medical surgical ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, weakness is a common manifestation due to the immune system attacking the communication between nerves and muscles. Monitoring for weakness is crucial to assess the disease progression and determine the effectiveness of treatment. Confusion is not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Increased intracranial pressure and increased urinary output are not directly associated with this condition.

3. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.

5. A nurse in an emergency room is caring for a client who sustained partial-thickness burns to both lower legs, chest, face, and both forearms. Which of the following is the priority action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with burns, especially burns to the face and chest, the priority action for the nurse is to inspect the mouth for signs of inhalation injuries. Inhalation injuries can be life-threatening and may not be immediately apparent. Identifying these injuries early allows for prompt intervention and can significantly impact the client's outcomes. While other actions such as pain management and blood tests are important, assessing for inhalation injuries takes precedence due to its critical nature.

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