Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6� C (97.8� F) to 37� C (98.6� F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

2. What question should a nurse ask a client who has an anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter equal to the lateral chest diameter?

• A. Are you taking any medications or herbal supplements?
• B. Do you have any chronic breathing problems?
• C. How often do you perform aerobic exercise?
• D. What is your occupation and what are your hobbies?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A nurse should ask the client if they have any chronic breathing problems when the anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter is the same as the lateral chest diameter. This finding indicates a barrel chest, which can be associated with chronic respiratory conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema. Assessing for chronic breathing problems can help the nurse further evaluate the client's respiratory status and provide appropriate care.

3. When assessing a client with pneumonia, which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pneumonia, lung tissue consolidation occurs, leading to dullness on percussion. This is a typical finding in pneumonia. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more commonly associated with conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Hyperresonance is typically seen in conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. A client has a pulmonary embolism & is started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why the client's oxygen saturation has not significantly improved. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. Breathing so rapidly interferes with oxygenation.
• B. Maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome.
• C. The blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs.
• D. The client needs immediate intubation & mechanical ventilation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A large blood clot in the lungs will significantly impair gas exchange & oxygenation. Unless the clot is dissolved, this process will continue unabated.

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