ATI RN
Leadership ATI Proctored
1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse case manager?
- A. To provide direct patient care
- B. To manage healthcare facilities
- C. To advocate for patient rights
- D. To coordinate long-term care services
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'To coordinate long-term care services.' A nurse case manager's primary role is to coordinate and manage long-term care services for patients, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because providing direct patient care is typically the responsibility of nurses, not nurse case managers. Choice B is incorrect as managing healthcare facilities is a role usually fulfilled by healthcare administrators. Choice C is incorrect as advocating for patient rights is important but not the primary role of a nurse case manager.
2. During a physical assessment of adult clients, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a client experiencing pain.
- B. Palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds.
- C. Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the client's arm.
- D. Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When performing a physical assessment, it is essential to palpate the client's abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent altering bowel sound results due to the pressure applied during palpation. Choice A is incorrect because the FLACC pain rating scale is typically used for nonverbal or pediatric clients, not adults. Choice C is incorrect because the bladder of the blood pressure cuff should surround about 80% of the client's arm circumference, not the bladder of the cuff itself. Choice D is incorrect because to obtain an apical heart rate, auscultation should be done at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, not at the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
3. Professionalism has historically been difficult to define. Early definitions of professionalism included which of the following characteristics?
- A. Expertise
- B. Empathy
- C. Ethical and moral values
- D. Honesty
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expertise.' Historically, professionalism was defined by one's knowledge and expertise in a particular field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because early definitions of professionalism did not focus on qualities like empathy, ethical and moral values, or honesty, but rather on the individual's level of skill and competence in their area of work.
4. Which of the following are managerial functions, according to Mintzberg? (EXCEPT)
- A. Leading and linking at the people level
- B. Communicating and controlling at the information level
- C. Deciding pay structures
- D. Doing at the action level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mintzberg believed that managing involves communicating and controlling at the information level, leading and linking at the people level, and doing at the action level. Choice A is correct as it aligns with Mintzberg's concept of leading and linking at the people level. Choice B is correct as it aligns with Mintzberg's concept of communicating and controlling at the information level. Choice D is correct as it aligns with Mintzberg's concept of doing at the action level. Choice C, deciding pay structures, is not a managerial function according to Mintzberg's model, making it the exception.
5. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?
- A. Administering immunizations
- B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
- C. Routine health screenings
- D. Health education campaigns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.
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