ati pharmacology proctored exam 2019 ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with breast cancer is being taught by a nurse about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. Chemotherapy can decrease platelet counts, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and oral trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines is crucial to prevent infections in immunocompromised clients. Aspirin should be avoided due to its blood-thinning effects that can increase the risk of bleeding. A diet low in protein is not recommended as cancer clients often require adequate protein intake for healing and recovery.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has breast cancer about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

4. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

5. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

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