ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When starting therapy with doxorubicin, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of doxorubicin. Doxorubicin is known to suppress the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Monitoring and reporting early signs of infection, such as a sore throat, are essential to prevent complications. Hair loss and fatigue are common side effects of doxorubicin but do not typically indicate immediate concerns for infection. Red urine is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not a priority over potentially serious infections that can arise.
2. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Increase your intake of vitamin D.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, it is important to increase the intake of vitamin D to help mitigate the risk of bone loss associated with the medication. Vitamin D aids in calcium absorption, supporting bone health in individuals taking Prednisone.
4. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.
5. A client has a prescription for Amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the nurse to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum sodium.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect that can be monitored by checking the client's serum creatinine levels. Regular monitoring of serum creatinine helps in early identification of kidney damage and allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choice B, serum potassium, is not typically associated with adverse effects of Amphotericin B. Choice C, serum sodium, and choice D, serum calcium, are not directly affected by Amphotericin B and are not primary indicators of its adverse effects.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access