ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When starting therapy with doxorubicin, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of doxorubicin. Doxorubicin is known to suppress the immune system, making patients more susceptible to infections. Monitoring and reporting early signs of infection, such as a sore throat, are essential to prevent complications. Hair loss and fatigue are common side effects of doxorubicin but do not typically indicate immediate concerns for infection. Red urine is a known side effect of doxorubicin but is not a priority over potentially serious infections that can arise.
2. A healthcare provider is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Apply one patch twice a day.
- B. Leave the patch on for 9 hours.
- C. Apply the patch to the child's waist.
- D. Use the opened tray within 6 months.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, it is important to leave the patch on for 9 hours each day to ensure the medication is effective. This duration allows for proper absorption of the medication through the skin. It is crucial for parents to follow this instruction to achieve the desired therapeutic effect for their child.
3. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin to treat angina. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication only when experiencing chest pain.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- D. Do not cut the patch regardless of your blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When using Nitroglycerin patches to treat angina, it is crucial to apply the patch to a different site each time. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures proper absorption of the medication, optimizing its effectiveness in managing angina symptoms.
4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the following dietary instructions should the provider include?
- A. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- D. Avoid foods high in iron.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, should be limited in the diet of individuals taking Warfarin to maintain a consistent level of the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as increasing intake of leafy green vegetables (choice A) and dairy products (choice C) may increase the intake of vitamin K, which is not recommended, and avoiding foods high in iron (choice D) is not directly related to Warfarin therapy.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?
- A. Iron
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.
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