ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Isoniazid
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.
2. A client who is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an ideal weight of 60 kg should have the tidal volume set at which of the following?
- A. 300 mL
- B. 480 mL
- C. 800 mL
- D. 950 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tidal volume is the amount of air delivered with each breath during mechanical ventilation. A common formula used to calculate tidal volume is 6-8 mL/kg of ideal body weight. For a client with an ideal weight of 60 kg, the expected tidal volume would be 60 kg x 6-8 mL/kg = 360-480 mL. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is 480 mL (Option B), which falls within the expected range based on the client's weight.
3. A client with COPD is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day
- B. Provide the client with a low-protein diet
- C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity
- D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In COPD, pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by maintaining positive pressure in the airways, preventing airway collapse, and promoting oxygenation. This technique assists in controlling respiratory rate, reducing dyspnea, and enhancing oxygen saturation levels. Restricting fluid intake is not typically a part of COPD management. Providing a low-protein diet is not a standard intervention for COPD. Early-morning hours are generally not recommended for exercise due to cooler temperatures and higher pollution levels, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Stridor
- B. Copious oral secretions
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Sore throat
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.
5. While caring for a client who was injured in a motor-vehicle crash and reports dyspnea and severe pain, a nurse in the emergency department notes that the client's chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. The nurse should identify this finding as which of the following?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Flail chest
- C. Hemothorax
- D. Pneumothorax
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest movement, where the chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. This occurs due to multiple rib fractures causing a segment of the chest wall to move independently from the rest of the thorax. Atelectasis refers to collapsed lung tissue, hemothorax is blood in the pleural space, and pneumothorax is air in the pleural space. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with the characteristic findings of flail chest.
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