ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client in the intensive care unit is receiving teaching before removal of an endotracheal tube. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Rest in a side-lying position after the tube is removed.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer every 4 hours after the tube is removed.
- C. Avoid speaking for extended periods.
- D. Vital signs will be monitored by a nurse every 15 minutes in the first hour after the tube is removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is essential to advise the client to avoid speaking for extended periods after the removal of the endotracheal tube to prevent strain on the vocal cords and allow the airway to recover. Speaking for prolonged periods can lead to irritation and potentially affect the healing process. The other options are also important post-extubation instructions, such as using the incentive spirometer to maintain lung function, positioning in a side-lying position for comfort, and frequent monitoring of vital signs to ensure the client's stability.
2. While dining at a restaurant, a person begins to choke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the person to call 911.
- B. Ask the person if he/she can speak.
- C. Use the jaw-thrust maneuver.
- D. Perform abdominal thrusts.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When encountering a choking individual, the nurse should first assess the person's ability to speak. If the person can speak, it indicates that their airway is partially obstructed, allowing some air to pass. In this case, encouraging the person to continue coughing and monitoring them closely may be appropriate. If the person cannot speak, it may suggest a complete airway obstruction and immediate intervention is required. Instructing the person to call 911 (Choice A) may be necessary if the situation worsens. Using the jaw-thrust maneuver (Choice C) is not appropriate for a choking victim. Performing abdominal thrusts (Choice D) is typically recommended for conscious choking victims, not chest compressions.
3. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Give morphine IV.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's.
- D. Initiate cardiac monitoring.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.
4. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Night sweats
- C. Confusion
- D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.
5. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Isoniazid
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.
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