Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Dexamethasone
• C. Heparin
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of a pulmonary embolism, the priority medication to administer is Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent the formation of new blood clots and the growth of existing ones, which is crucial in managing pulmonary embolism. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used for inflammation, and Atropine is an anticholinergic medication used for various purposes such as treating bradycardia.

3. A client is going to be admitted for a scheduled surgical procedure. Which action does the nurse explain is the most important thing the client can do to protect against errors?

• A. Bring a list of all medications and their purposes.
• B. Keep the doctor's phone number close by.
• C. Ensure all providers wash their hands before entering the room.
• D. Document the name of each caregiver who enters the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action a client can take to protect against errors is to bring a list of all medications and their purposes. This helps ensure that the healthcare team has accurate information about the client's medications, reducing the risk of medication errors, which are the most common type of healthcare mistake. Knowing the medications and their purposes can also aid in preventing drug interactions and adverse effects during the surgical procedure.

4. During an acute asthma attack, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Loud wheezing
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased breath sounds
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing an acute asthma attack, decreased breath sounds suggest severe airway obstruction or respiratory fatigue, indicating a worsening condition. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and a productive cough are common manifestations during an asthma attack as the airways constrict, leading to turbulent airflow causing wheezing, increased effort to breathe resulting in a higher respiratory rate, and mucus production causing a productive cough. However, decreased breath sounds signify a critical situation requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client is 1 day postoperative following a lobectomy with a chest tube drainage system in place. Which finding by the nurse indicates a need for intervention?

• A. Chest tube eyelets not visible
• B. Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
• C. Presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber
• D. Development of subcutaneous emphysema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The development of subcutaneous emphysema is a concerning finding that requires immediate intervention. Subcutaneous emphysema results from air leaking into the tissues, which can lead to respiratory compromise. It is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further complications. The other options are normal or expected findings in a chest tube drainage system. Chest tube eyelets not being visible may indicate dislodgement, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates proper functioning, and the presence of tidal fluctuation in the water seal chamber demonstrates appropriate drainage and lung re-expansion.

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