a nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023

1. When assessing a client with pneumonia, which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pneumonia, lung tissue consolidation occurs, leading to dullness on percussion. This is a typical finding in pneumonia. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more commonly associated with conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Hyperresonance is typically seen in conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema.

2. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

3. A healthcare professional assesses a client who is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A silent chest in a client experiencing an acute asthma attack indicates severe airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure. It is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention as it signifies a lack of airflow and ventilation. Loud wheezing, increased respiratory rate, and use of accessory muscles are common signs of an asthma attack and indicate the body's attempt to compensate. However, a silent chest suggests a dangerous lack of airflow that necessitates urgent medical attention to prevent respiratory arrest.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

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