Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following surgical repair of a mandibular fracture with fixed occlusion of the jaws in a closed position. Which of the following statements is the priority for the nurse to make?

• A. "We can teach you some relaxation techniques to minimize your pain."
• B. "Keep wire cutters with you at all times."
• C. "Use a water pick device to keep your teeth clean."
• D. "Consume a high-protein, liquid diet."

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

3. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?

• A. Never strip the tubing to maintain patency.
• B. Secure tubing junctions with tape to prevent accidental disconnections.
• C. Set wall suction at the level recommended by the device manufacturer.
• D. Keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system is interrupted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. During an admission assessment of a client with COPD and emphysema complaining of a frequent productive cough and shortness of breath, what assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Respiratory alkalosis
• B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest
• C. Oxygen saturation level 96%
• D. Petechiae on chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: COPD and emphysema are chronic respiratory conditions that can lead to changes in the shape of the chest. In clients with COPD, the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often increases, giving a barrel chest appearance. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs and is a common physical finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. The other options are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Respiratory alkalosis is not a common finding in these clients. An oxygen saturation level of 96% is within the normal range and does not specifically relate to COPD. Petechiae on the chest are not typically associated with COPD or emphysema.

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