ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
- A. Acute myocardial infarction
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.
2. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:
- A. asymptomatic.
- B. acute flare.
- C. the intercritical period.
- D. chronic gout.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.
3. Which of the following women are at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?
- A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
- B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has menstrual irregularities with periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods.
- C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension.
- D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Obesity and irregular menstrual cycles, including periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods, are significant risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer. Choice A is less likely as postmenopausal status reduces the risk. Choice C is not directly associated with a high risk of endometrial cancer. Choice D, smoking, is more strongly linked to other types of cancers like lung cancer rather than endometrial cancer.
4. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
- D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.
5. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin disorders is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?
- A. Psoriasis
- B. Melanoma
- C. Atopic dermatitis
- D. Urticaria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation. Choice B, Melanoma, is a type of skin cancer involving melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Choice C, Atopic dermatitis, is a different inflammatory skin condition associated with pruritus and eczematous lesions, not primarily characterized by angiogenesis. Choice D, Urticaria, is a skin condition characterized by hives and wheals due to histamine release, not typically involving the features mentioned in the question.
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