rn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment 2019 b with ngn RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN - Nursing Elites
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

1. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for codeine for cough suppression. What is the priority instruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to 'Move slowly when standing up.' Codeine can cause orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to dizziness or fainting. By advising the client to move slowly when standing up, the nurse helps prevent falls or injuries due to sudden drops in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are important instructions as well but not the priority when considering the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with codeine.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates the client might be experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chills and fever are classic signs of an acute hemolytic reaction, where the body is reacting to the transfused blood. This reaction can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Low back pain, distended neck veins, and headache are not typical signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Low back pain may be associated with kidney issues, distended neck veins with fluid overload or heart failure, and headache with various causes such as stress, dehydration, or migraines.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output is the desired outcome when administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes the excretion of excess fluids from the body, which helps in reducing fluid overload, a common symptom of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the action of furosemide in treating heart failure. Visual acuity improvement, decreased respiratory rate, and rapid weight loss are not typical indicators of furosemide effectiveness in managing heart failure.

5. What are the key considerations when administering opioid analgesics to a patient in pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct key consideration when administering opioid analgesics to a patient in pain is monitoring for respiratory depression. Opioids can lead to respiratory depression, making it crucial to carefully monitor the patient's breathing. Administering an opioid antagonist is not a key consideration during the administration of opioids; it is used to reverse opioid effects in cases of overdose, not as a routine practice. Assessing respiratory rate and pain level before administration is important but not the key consideration compared to monitoring for respiratory depression. Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness is also essential but not as critical as monitoring for respiratory depression when administering opioids.

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