ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?
- A. Bag valve mask device
- B. Defibrillator machine
- C. Chest tube equipment
- D. Central venous catheter tray
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.
2. A client with a tracheostomy experienced a coughing spell during a meal that was being fed by an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What action by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- B. Assign a different UAP to the client.
- C. Report the UAP to the manager.
- D. Request thicker liquids for meals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's lung sounds to check for signs of aspiration, which can compromise the client's oxygenation. This is crucial to ensure the client's immediate safety and respiratory status. Once the client has been assessed, the nurse can then consider consulting with the registered dietitian regarding appropriate thickened liquids for future meals. Assigning a different UAP or reporting the UAP to the manager may be necessary steps but not the immediate priority in this situation.
3. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
- B. WBC 16,000/mm3
- C. Negative throat culture
- D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse about ways to facilitate eating. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will rest for at least 30 minutes before eating.
- B. I will take my bronchodilators after meals.
- C. I will eat five or six small meals each day.
- D. I will choose foods that are not gas-forming.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B, 'I will take my bronchodilators after meals,' indicates a need for further teaching. Bronchodilators should be taken before meals to help open the airways and make breathing easier before eating. This statement suggests a misunderstanding of the timing for optimal bronchodilator effectiveness. Options A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for facilitating eating for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
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